Post subject: Math question
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This isn't a riddle, but it's a question I have been trying to figure out for a long time but sadly I am not that good at math so I have never been able too. it's totally possible that what I am asking for is impossible also. But here it is. Is it possible to write an equation that contains 2 variables, that cannot be true? You can use numbers and variables, but exactly two variables (X and Y) must be used in this equation, they can be used multiple times each if you wish. So for example something like this: X + Y = X (Of course this can easily be true, if either X or Y are 0) It seems like making one or the other 0 will always tend to make an eqaution possible but like I said, I am bad at math.
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12Motion wrote:
X + Y = X (Of course this can easily be true, if either X or Y are 0)
This is not true if only X = 0, Y has to be 0. I'm not quite sure what you mean, but X + Y + 1 = X + Y is obviously never true.
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That's not true Baxter... Let's take any two numbers a and b such that a=b. a=b ab=b^2 ab-a^2=b^2-a^2 a(b-a)=(b+a)(b-a) a=b+a a=2a 1=2 0=1 X+Y=X+Y+1 So there.
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curtmack wrote:
a=b ab=b^2 ab-a^2=b^2-a^2 a(b-a)=(b+a)(b-a) a=b+a a=2a 1=2 0=1
Well... math doesn't allow dividing by 0. If a=b then b-a=0, and you divide by that to get a=b+a
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Congratulations. That bit of algebra has been circulating the internet for years, actually.
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wow how the hell did I never thing of X+Y+1 = X+Y I feel so stupid.
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First we consider the identity: e^πi + 1 = 0 Which we know from Calculus, Taylor Series and all that jazz. And indeed, every formula of the form: e^(2n+1)π i + 1 = 0; where n ∈ Z But I digress. Anyway, e^πi + 1 =0 e^πi= -1 e^2πi = 1 e^2πi = e^0 2πi = 0 What's going on here?
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Everything's going on here.
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Post subject: Re: Math question
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12Motion wrote:
X + Y = X (Of course this can easily be true, if either X or Y are 0)
Solving 1 equation with 2 variables will have an infinite number of answers. X + Y = X X + Y - X = X - X Y = 0 Replacing Y = 0 on the original answer, you get: X + (0) = X X = X There forward X can be any value. Baxter's solution is simple. The answer of equaling 2 equations is where both equations cross (have the same value). So if you have 2 parallel lines, they will never cross each other...
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Baxter wrote:
X + Y + 1 = X + Y is obviously never true.
X=Y=∞ :p
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What about cos(x*y) > 1 or a simple sinc(x*y) > 1 (or in fact = 1, but sinc(0) = 1 in most cases, although it should be undefined) or e^(i*pi*x*y)>1 As long as something operator has a bound, an equation with 2 variables, and 1 at least constant should be able to be false for all values of either variable, as long as your variables are real numbers.
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Is an expression using less than or greater than technically an equation? Since less than / greater than are "inequalities", I'm inclined to think relationships using them aren't equations. But if they are allowed in this question, you could just say X+Y > X+Y, which is always false. Edit: Hmm, seems I combined the two questions here into one brand new, unrelated, utterly useless question!
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ok then, same vein then. cos(x*y) = 42
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OmnipotentEntity wrote:
ok then, same vein then. cos(x*y) = 42
Exactly. I used inequalities to show that I was emphasizing that bounded operators will be sufficent for this scenario. Now someone do it without using a bounded operator (i.e.your operator needs to work for any type of REAL vector space, and should not produce bounded ouput). Any volunteers? ;)
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You guys are very strong O_O
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anubis wrote:
X=Y=∞
That's no number, you foo'.
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Would the floor and ceiling functions be what you call bounded operators? If not, you could just set one of them to a fractional value, and it would be false by definition.
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Dacicus wrote:
Would the floor and ceiling functions be what you call bounded operators? If not, you could just set one of them to a fractional value, and it would be false by definition.
Heh, I really have no idea, but I assume they ARE bounded operators, as the domain is all reals, and the range is integers... But I'm no math major, just an EE major.
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